Several evenings ago I read a verse that has continued to meander into my consciousness:
“Remember the word unto thy servant, upon which thou hast caused me to hope” (Psalm 119:49).
Sometimes, though, it seems I’ve misappropriated God’s words for my own hope.
Does God cause me to hope…and then forget? No.
Does God cause me to hope…while not intending that hope to actually be for me? No.
I think those are two easy questions to answer.
But what about these next two?
Can it be I’ve erred in thinking that a given (hope-inducing) portion of God’s Word is specifically for me?
Does God make general promises in the Scriptures that I dare not presume to be directed at me?
In ways I never have before, I’ve been contemplating and struggling with such questions. Perhaps it has been good. I’m not sure.
I am sure, though, that it is good for me to keep coming back to something another hopeful-yet-doubtful man exclaimed a “number” of years ago: “Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief” (Mark 9:24).
Oh…here’s more of the context where I found that first verse I mentioned:
Do as thou hast said. —II Sam. 7:25.
Stablish thy word unto thy servant, who is devoted to thy fear. So shall I have wherewith to answer him that reproacheth me: for I trust in thy word. Remember the word unto thy servant, upon which thou hast caused me to hope. Thy statutes have been my songs in the house of my pilgrimage.
The rest of those selections are here: Daily Light on the Daily Path | October 31, Evening.
Oh, hey! Maybe Caused to Hope can be the title of my first ebook!
Hi Mark,
I’ve often wondered about this very thing. I think that there have been times when I have wanted a promise that seemed to speak directly to a need to be for me personally that I have misappropriated it. But I wonder how to tell the difference? Any words of wisdom? As usual, a thought-provoking post
Iain